This is just to expand on previous comments.

According to DICCIONARIO PANHISPÁNICO DE DUDAS - Primera edición (octubre 2005) from the Real Academia Española that during the Middle Ages the X was pronounced similar the current way of sh in English and the ch in French.
http://buscon.rae.es/dpdI/SrvltGUIBusDPD?lema=x

Although Antonio de Nebrija, the author of la primera gramática española (1492), wrote "La x, ya dijimos qué son tiene en el latín, y que no es otra cosa sino breviatura de cs; nosotros dámosle tal pronunciación, cual suena en las primeras letras de estas dicciones: xenabe, xabón, o en las últimas de aquestas: relox, balax; mucho contra su naturaleza, porque esta pronunciación, como dijimos, es propia de la lengua arábiga, de donde parece que vino a nuestro lenguaje."
http://www.antoniodenebrija.org/libro1.html#5

The Real Academia Española also asks for the world to respect México and to spell it's name and other similar names to be spelled in this way.
http://buscon.rae.es/dpdI/SrvltGUIBusDPD?lema=M%E9xico

However many refuse to respect the spelling of México.
http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=211016

The use of x as /sh/ still exists in Spain with the Basque names and words such as Xavier and Etxeverría. Xavi from FC Barcelona is Catalan but the etymological origin of his name is Basque and is pronounced by the whole country of Spain as Shavi.

Armando

To Arturo:

The use of the letter "x" in Spanish is one of the strongest indicators of an Arabic influence in the language. At some point the Academia Real decided that the sound represented by the "x" wasn't acceptable anymore. I no longer remember which edition of their dictionary enunciates the change. The decision to keep the "x" in the Spanish of the Americas was made at the time the nations of the western hemisphere broke away from Spanish political control.

The sound in Arabic is made by bending back the tongue and vibrating the back part of the velum in the buccal cavity at the same time forcing air into the pharyngeal area. What actually occurred is that the sounds of Spanish have become more oral and less guttural. When the christians arrived in the western hemisphere the almost 100% phonetic ability of 6th century Spanish came in handy. Spanish succeeded in graphically representing virtually every sound they heard in the languages of the newly discovered indigenes. The sound is somewhat complicated to use. The sound has been replaced in Spanish without the feature of doubling the tongue back. Reading the church records will show you that it took awhile to settle on whether to use a "j, g, h, or x" in standard orthography. The languages of the western hemisphere did not create the need for the letter "x". Sixteenth century Spanish already had been using that letter for centuries before 1492. Linguists have decided on using "j" with the vowels "a, o, u" and "g" with vowels "e, I". The reason is a somewhat Germanic one- in German the vowels "a, o, u" are considered "strong" and need the "j". The others are weak and the letter "g" will do. My German instructor used this terminology but it's possible that it is no longer described in that fashion.

Many years ago (class of '61) my language professors stated that the rejection of the "j" in the name of Mexico was deliberately done. It was a conscious act of rejecting the past of Spanish oppressive rule. I personally consider it an attempt to affront those whose nation is no longer under the domination of Spain.

I hope I answered at least some of your question and didn't just "muddy the waters."

-----Original Message-----
>From: arturo.ramos2@gmail.com
>Sent: Sep 6, 2009 3:39 AM
>To: general@lists.nuestrosranchos.org
>Subject: [Nuestros Ranchos] Méjico vs. Mexico
>
>I have noticed that some members of the group spell México with a J, ie. Méjico.
>
>For exmaple in Daniel's message from about a year ago he wrote:
>
>Once you reach Manuel's grandfather who ever he may have been you will connecto to all of us in someway, youll go back so far in your genealogy 1500-1600, and given the right line back to the Kings of Spain and princes of Europe, I connect to royalty thanks to my Spanish, Portuguese and German ancestry. Its a good feeling knowing where you come from but the best is for the perservation for future generations. Since you have alteño ancestors, you're full spanish i suppose, until we can get further possibly italian, portugues, french and others who arrived in Méjico. -Daniel
>
>I was just wondering about the politics/tradition/meaning behind the use of such a spelling and would appreciate any comments.

I was raised spelling Mexico as Méjico. I asked this along time ago. Maybe its because

my parents are alteños. According to my grandfather (I try to paraphrase as best as I remember!)

I guess in Old Castilian the X was used for J, since the letter didnt exist but the sound did.

So the X made the J sound. When the conquistadores came they learned the people were

Mexica (Mesheeca) so they gave it a more Europeanized name, Mexico (except the X stood for sounds that didnt exist in Castilian, ie. SH. During the colony it was actually still pronounced Meshico, except it had the Castilian Whistle not actually SH like in English. When more Europeans were deciding where to go in America, thye would prob ask "Por que no vamos a Mexico (Mesico) (whistle). But at the same Mexico was really used. Mexico being Spain's principal colony usually was just reffered as New Spain, it was common usage. Then or eventually in the early colony the X slowly changed to the J and K sound. I guess there were rules on the J and K giving birth to modern Castilian. In NEw spain the J would be pronounced the same in Spain, the gargal (sounds like German?). During the last years of the colony Mexico was spelt as Mejico, eventually the MExican Criollos changed back to Mexico because for them the J sound was X. I am getting confused as I type! Its a difficult subject. Eventually down the line (today) parts of Mejico and Spain spell it as Méjico. Because its 'proper' usage by the Real Academia Española. Parts like Los Altos its very popular to spell it MEjico, I would think all alteños would spell it like that? Mariano Gonzalez Leal does as well. I know I get a bunch of comments why do you spell it like that? I tell people, its how my ancestors spelt it and how I learned. Since Los Altos is so high, we might have kept colonial stuff from Spain? I know my parents have a little tiny whistle when they talk. How I speak is how my parents speak, its the same basic concept, imagine since all alteños intermarried were the same family by blood just different last names. Im pretty sure we have our own little dialect going on. I do feel like an alteño eventhough botn in the US, i have learned the culture, raised in it, look like the typical alteño, lived there for a year, eat the food, speech, genealogy has helped me a lot feel proud of who my ancestors were a very proud and hard working people. Well not sure if this helps or at least sheds light! -Daniel Camino

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